Galen NUR 155 Exam 1 – Lab and Theory: 30 Questions with Answers & Rationales

Galen NUR 155 Exam 1 – Lab and Theory: 30 Questions with Answers & Rationales


1. A patient with a hearing impairment is having difficulty understanding instructions. What is the best nursing action?
A. Speak louder than usual
B. Use written communication
C. Face the patient and speak clearly
D. Use hand gestures only
Answer: C
Rationale: Facing the patient ensures they can read lips and understand clearly.


2. Which type of isolation precaution is used for tuberculosis?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Standard
D. Airborne
Answer: D
Rationale: TB requires airborne precautions due to small, suspended particles.


3. The nurse documents “patient appears drowsy” in the chart. This is an example of:
A. Objective data
B. Subjective data
C. Inference
D. Diagnosis
Answer: C
Rationale: “Appears drowsy” is an inference, not directly observed data.


4. Which nursing intervention is best for preventing pressure ulcers?
A. Massage red areas
B. Keep bed flat
C. Reposition every 2 hours
D. Limit fluid intake
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular repositioning reduces pressure on skin.


5. Hand hygiene must be performed:
A. Only when visibly soiled
B. After using hand lotion
C. Before and after patient contact
D. Only before a sterile procedure
Answer: C
Rationale: Standard precautions require hand hygiene with all patient contact.


6. The most appropriate site to assess pulse in an adult emergency is:
A. Brachial
B. Radial
C. Carotid
D. Femoral
Answer: C
Rationale: Carotid is easily accessible and reliable in emergencies.


7. The patient reports pain. This is:
A. Objective data
B. Subjective data
C. Assessment
D. Planning
Answer: B
Rationale: Pain is a personal, subjective experience.


8. Which PPE is necessary for contact precautions?
A. Gown and gloves
B. N95 mask only
C. Surgical mask and gloves
D. Face shield and gown
Answer: A
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves to prevent spread.


9. What is the priority nursing action when a patient begins to fall?
A. Call for help
B. Try to lift them up
C. Ease the patient to the floor
D. Catch the patient mid-fall
Answer: C
Rationale: Controlled descent prevents injury to both patient and nurse.


10. What is the first step in the nursing process?
A. Diagnosis
B. Planning
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment is the foundation of all nursing care.


11. A patient with a Foley catheter should have perineal care:
A. Weekly
B. Once a shift
C. Twice a day and PRN
D. Only when soiled
Answer: C
Rationale: Twice daily care reduces infection risk.


12. The correct technique for a sterile dressing change includes:
A. Opening gloves before handwashing
B. Using nonsterile gloves
C. Touching only sterile surfaces with sterile gloves
D. Wiping wound from outside to center
Answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining sterility is essential.


13. The nurse is using SBAR to communicate. What does “B” stand for?
A. Background
B. Baseline
C. Behavior
D. Body
Answer: A
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.


14. A patient refuses medication. The nurse should:
A. Insist they take it
B. Call pharmacy
C. Document and notify provider
D. Hide it in food
Answer: C
Rationale: Patient autonomy must be respected and refusal documented.


15. What is the best indicator of fluid balance?
A. Blood pressure
B. Urine output
C. Skin turgor
D. Daily weight
Answer: D
Rationale: Weight changes reflect fluid gain or loss accurately.


16. What position promotes maximum lung expansion?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Fowler’s
D. Side-lying
Answer: C
Rationale: Fowler’s allows diaphragmatic movement.


17. The nurse must lift a heavy object. What action reduces injury risk?
A. Bending at waist
B. Twisting at torso
C. Using legs to lift
D. Holding object far from body
Answer: C
Rationale: Lifting with legs reduces strain.


18. A patient with a latex allergy should avoid:
A. Nitrile gloves
B. Bananas and avocados
C. Vinyl flooring
D. Cotton sheets
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity exists with latex and certain fruits.


19. Which statement shows understanding of patient teaching?
A. “I will double my dose if I feel worse.”
B. “I will stop taking the antibiotic once I feel better.”
C. “I will complete the full antibiotic course.”
D. “I can share the medication with my spouse.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Full course prevents resistance.


20. Which action best prevents CAUTIs (catheter-associated UTIs)?
A. Increasing fluids
B. Using sterile technique during insertion
C. Using antibiotics prophylactically
D. Emptying bag weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: Sterile insertion is key to prevention.


21. What does HIPAA regulate?
A. Health insurance coverage
B. Public health reporting
C. Patient privacy and confidentiality
D. OSHA safety standards
Answer: C
Rationale: HIPAA ensures patient information protection.


22. The nurse notes 101°F temp, flushed face, and chills. This is:
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Evaluation
D. Plan
Answer: B
Rationale: Observable signs are objective.


23. When delegating to a CNA, the nurse remains responsible for:
A. Documentation
B. Outcomes of care
C. CNA’s license
D. Physician orders
Answer: B
Rationale: Accountability remains with the RN.


24. Which order of PPE removal is correct?
A. Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
B. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
C. Goggles, mask, gloves, gown
D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
Answer: D
Rationale: Remove most contaminated items (gloves) first.


25. A patient states “I feel hopeless.” The nurse should:
A. Change the subject
B. Say “Don’t worry”
C. Ask, “Can you tell me more?”
D. Call security
Answer: C
Rationale: Open-ended responses encourage expression.


26. Best site for temperature in a neutropenic patient is:
A. Rectal
B. Oral
C. Axillary
D. Tympanic
Answer: C
Rationale: Avoid rectal/oral due to infection risk.


27. What should be included in a legal chart entry?
A. Personal opinions
B. Abbreviations like “u” for units
C. Clear, objective observations
D. White-out corrections
Answer: C
Rationale: Legal documentation must be factual and legible.


28. How long should you scrub hands with soap and water?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: C
Rationale: CDC recommends at least 20 seconds.


29. What is a sentinel event?
A. Medication error without harm
B. Any fall
C. Unexpected event causing death/serious harm
D. Patient complaint
Answer: C
Rationale: Sentinel events require urgent review.


30. The nurse notes red, open skin on the sacrum. This is most likely:
A. Stage I pressure injury
B. Stage II pressure injury
C. Stage III ulcer
D. Blanchable erythema
Answer: B
Rationale: Open skin without slough indicates stage II.